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".......which are used by hedge funds, pension funds, and banks/broker-dealers in order to post initial margin, fund balance sheets, cover short positions, etc......."

I definitely cannot understand this sentence. Why should a pension fund need to borrow stocks? AFAIK they are buying stocks for the long term, hence they should be on the lenders' side..

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In this instance (and in the rest of the issue more broadly) I'm *generally* not talking about borrowing equities/credit (perhaps I should have clarified further). I'm mostly referring to borrowing USTs for the purpose of satisfying IM/VM margin requirements and collateral swaps/transformation/upgrades that involve swapping lower quality credit instruments with USTs for the purpose of posting margin.

A pension fund wouldn't need to borrow stocks - you're right. They would be on the lending side in that instance. Generally speaking, they also tend to be on the lending side of USTs as well.

But it's possible to envision a scenario in which a pension fund has a rather low allocation to USTs and wants to use an interest rate swap to allow better liability matching, so they have to post IM to a CCP. In that case, one could imagine a pension fund being on the borrowing side of a securities lending/borrowing transaction.

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